Posted in SSDO

Đề thi SSDO tha khảo nè

Q.1) The Cursor Stored Procedures are………
– 2 true choices.

A. sp_describe_column (missed)
B. sp_indexs
C. sp_primarykeys
D. sp_cursor_list (missed)
E. A and D


Q.2) All information about tables in user Database is stored in a set of tables called the System catalog.that can be accessed using……..
– 1 true choice.

A. Sercurity Stored Procedures
B. Catalog Stored Procedures (correct answer)
C. Distributed Query Stored Procedures
D. A and B
E. User-define Stored Procedures

Q.3) Where are Catalog Stored Procedures ?
-2 true choices

A. sp_column (missed)
B. sp_addalias
C. sp_describe_cursor
D. sp_database and sp_statistics (missed)
E. A and C
Q.4) The Stored procedures use to manage the security of the database. They are:
-1 true choice.

A. Database Mail and SQL mail stored Procedures
B. Cursor Stored Procedures.
C. Sercurity Stored Procedures (correct answer)
D. Database Mail and SQL mail stored Procedures.
E. Distributed Query Stored Procedures

Q.5) Database Mail and SQL mail stored Procedures.
– 1 true choice.

A. Used to pefrom email operations from with in the SQL server. (correct answer)
B. Use in the management of distributed queries.
C. Use to implement the fuctionality of a Cursor.
D. Use to manage the security of the DB.
E. Send mail to the SQL server.

Q.6) The Stored Procedure
– 2 true choices.

A. is a set of pre-compiled T-SQL statements executed as a single unit.
B. is a set of T-SQL that are executed as a single block of code that performs a specific task. (missed)
C. is used in database Administrative and information activities.
D. can be created to carry out repetitive (missed)
E. All of about.

Q.7) The ……..is used to change the owner of the current database.
-1 true choice.

A. sp_cursor_list
B. sp_changedbowner (correct answer)
C. sp_addalias
D. sp_describe_column
E. A and D
Q.8) Advantages of The Store Procedures are:

A. Reduced client/server traffic
(missed)
B. can be created to carry out repetitive
C. Reuse of code. (missed)
D. A and B
E. B and D

Q.9) Which are not System Stored Procedures?
-2 true choices.

A. Distributed Query Stored Procedures
B. Extended Stored Procedures (missed)
C. Temporary Stored Procedures (missed)
D. Database Mail and SQL mail stored Procedures.
E. Cursor Stored Procedures

Q.10) The Stored procedures are created for temporary use with a session are called…
– 1 true choice.

A. Local Temporary Procedures
B. Global Temporary Procedures
C. Remote Stored Procedures
D. Temporary Stored Procedures (correct answer)
E. Customer Stored Procedures
Q.11) The…………..are used to perform tasks that are unable to be perform using standard T-SQL statement.
– 1 true choice

A. Extended Stored Procedures. (correct answer)
B. T-SQL Stored Procedures
C. Local stored Procedures
D. B and C
E. Not of about

Q.12) The…………….are not residents of SQL server. they are implemented as Dynamic Link Libraries(DLL) executed outsite the SQL Sever Environment.
– 1 true choice.

A. Remote Stored Procedures
B. Temporary Stored Procedures
C. Extended Stored Procedures. (correct answer)
D. B and C
E. Customer Stored Procedures
Q.13) The ……………….are created individual user databases.And can not be accessed by any user other than the one who has created it.
– 1 true choice

A. Extended Stored Procedures
B. Temporary Stored Procedures
C. Local stored Procedures (correct answer)
D. Global Temporary Procedures
E. B and C

Q.14) The Local Temporary Procedures are…………
– 2 true choices.

A. Visible only to the user that create them. (missed)
B. visible for all users
C. use # prefix before the procedure name (missed)
D. use ##
E. can be used any user

Q.15) The Global Tem Procedures ….
– 3 true choices

A. are dropped at the end of the last session. (missed)
B. are dropped at the end of the current session
C. Can only be used by its owner
D. can be used any user (missed)
E. are visible for all users (missed)
Q.16) Temporary Stored Procedures include:
– 2 true choices

A. Local Temporary Procedures (missed)
B. Global Temporary Procedures (missed)
C. Local stored Procedures
D. Customer Stored Procedures
E. A and C

Q.17) EXECUTE xp_fileexists ‘C:\sample.txt’
– 1 true choice.

A. check file sample.txt exists.
B. check file sample.txt exists or not (correct answer)
C. Execute a file is named sample.txt
D. A and C
E. Not all about

Q.18) OBJECT_DEFINITION()
– 2 choices

A. system stored procedure use to display the dependencies of a stored procedure
B. system function used to display the definition of a stored procedure. (missed)
C. system view used to display definition of a stored procedure.
D. system function used to display the definition of a stored procedure by specifying the object ID of the procedure. (missed)
E. A and D
Q.19) The……………create stored procedures for performance of various tasks, they are referred to as user-defined or custom stored procedures and can be set to override the default system procedures.
– 1 true choice.

A. Extended Stored Procedures
B. Customer Stored Procedures (correct answer)
C. T-SQL Stored Procedures
D. System Stored Procedures
E. A and D

Q.20) Using “OUTPUT” clause.
– 2 true choice

A. Return information from each row on which the INSERT, UPDATE, and DELETE have been executed. (missed)
B. Create stored procedures for performance of various tasks, they are referred to as user-defined or custom stored procedures
C. Useful to retrieve the value of an identity or computed column after an INSERT or UPDATE operation (missed)
D. Print out a Variable.
E. E and C

Q.21) when a local temporary table is created inside a stored procedures, the table disappears when the procedure is exited.

A. False
B. True (correct answer)
Q.22) System stored procedure used to display the definition of a stored procedure?
-1 true choice.

A. Object_definition()
B. sp_helptext (correct answer)
C. sp_depends
D. sys.sql_modules
E. sp_display

Q.23) A Stored Procedure can reference tables,views, user-define functions and other

A. True (correct answer)
B. False

Q.24) The permission associated with the stored procedure are not lost when a store procedure is re-created. And when a stored procedure is altered, the permissions defined for the stored procedure remain the same even though the procedure definetion is changeed

A. true
B. false (correct answer)

Q.25) Everyone can modify or rename all procedure.

A. true
B. false (correct answer)

Q.26) A Stored procedure can be modified to change the procedure name as well as the procedure definition.

A. True (correct answer)
B. False

Q.27) Stored procedures can be dropped if they are no longer needed. if another stored procedure calls a deleted procedure,
– 1 choice.

A. a replaced procedure is dipslay.
B. an error message is display. (correct answer)
C. No procedure display
D. B and C
E. none about

Q.28) Before dropping a procedure, execute the …………………….. system stored procedure to determine which objects depend on the procedure
– 1 choice

A. sys.sql_modules
B. sp_depends (correct answer)
C. sp_helptext
D. sp_check
E. A and B

Q.29) The RETURN statement passes control back to the calling program. any T-SQL statements following the RETURN statement are executed.

A. True
B. False (correct answer)

Q.30) if a new procedure is created using the same name as well as the same parameters as the drop procedure,all calls to the dropped procedure will be
– 1 choice

A. Denied immediately
B. executed sucessfully (correct answer)
C. Had some error messages
D. No Action
E. None about

Q.31) If a stored procedure is executed sucessfully, It returns ………..by defaul. If errors are encountered and the procedure is not successfully executed, ……………interger value is returned.
– 1 choice

A. a values zero ………………..a non – one
B. a non-zero ……………..a zero
C. a non-zero ……….. a greater than zero
D. a values zero……………….a non-zero (correct answer)
E. A and D
Q.32) When a stored procedure is created using options, these options should be included in the ALTER PROCEDURE statement to retain their function.

A. false
B. True (correct answer)

Q.33) …………………are defined at the time of creation of procedure.
– 2 choice

A. Input parameters (missed)
B. Output parameters (missed)
C. A and B
D. Name of stored procedure

Q.34) Which statement is true?
– 1 choice.

A. If the OUPUT key word is omitted, the procedure is still exceuted.
B. If the OUPUT key word is omitted, the procedure is still exceuted but is not return a value. (correct answer)
C. If the OUPUT key word is omitted, the procedure is not exceuted but is not return a value.
D. A and B
E. If the OUPUT key word is omitted, the procedure is still exceuted and return a value.

Q.35) Which statement is true?
– 1 choice

A. When the RETURN statement is used in a stored procedure, It can return a null value. if a procedure tries to return a null value, a warning message is generated and the value zero is returned.
B. When the RETURN statement is used in a stored procedure, It can not return a null value. if a procedure tries to return a null value, a warning message is generated and the value zero is returned. (correct answer)
C. When the RETURN statement is used in a stored procedure, It can not return a null value. if a procedure tries to return a null value, a warning message is generated and the value one is returned.
D. None above
E. A and C

Q.36)
Which statements are true?
– 2 choices

A. The OUTPUT parameters can be of TEXT and IMAGE data type.
B. The calling statement must contain a variable to receive the return value (missed)
C. The variable can be used in subsequent T-SQL statements in the batch or the calling procedure. (missed)
D. Output parameter can not be cursor placeholders

Q.37) Displays the default error message for an error.
-1 choice.

A. MESSAGE_ERROR()
B. RETURN_ERROR()
C. ERROR_MESSAGE() (correct answer)
D. @@ERROR
E. @@ERROR_LINE

Q.38) Which statement are false?
-2 choice

A. The stored procedure can not be nested (missed)
B. The maximum level of nesting is 32
C. There is no limit as to the number of stored procedure that can be called from a given stored procedure (missed)
D. None above

Q.39) Specifies an integer value to be returned though the stored procedure.
– 1 choice

A. VALUE_RETURN()
B. RETURN()
C. RETURN (correct answer)
D. RETURN_INT()

Q.40) Which statement is not True?
– 2 choice

A. When stored procedure is executed from other stored procedure, the procedures are said to be nested.
B. When an error occurs in the TRY block, the statements following the statement that caused the error are executed only after CATCH block is executed. (missed)
C. When the @@ERROR funtion is called, an error message is returned for the error occuring in the last executed statement. (missed)
D. A and C

Q.41) Which statements are true?
– 3 choices

A. Trigger can not be executed directly nor do they pass or receive parameters. (missed)
B. A Trigger is executed when the table is created.
C. Trigger is a stored procedure that executed when data in a specified table is modified. (missed)
D. Trigger is the same as Check constraint.
E. Trigger are often created to enforce referential integrity among logically related data in different table. (missed)

Q.42) which are true?
– 3 choice

A. @@ERROR_LINE : Returns the line number that caused the error (missed)
B. @@ERROR : Returns the error number for the error in the last T_SQL statment. (missed)
C. @NESTLEVEL : Specifies the level of nesting of the current procedure.
D. The RETURN funtion specifies the return value for a stored procedure
E. The return code indicates the execution status of the stored procedure. (missed)

Q.43) The DDL Triggers….

A. are used to check and control database operations. (missed)
B. are used to enforce business rules when data is modified in tables or views.
C. are defined at the database level.
D. execute either while modifying the data or after the data is modified.
E. operate only after the table or view is modified.and are defined either at the database or the server level (missed)

Q.44) DML Trigger is executed when ….
– 1 choice

A. a session is established with a LOGON event.
B. data is inserted,modified or delete in a table or a View using the INSERT,UPDATE or DELETE statements
(correct answer)
C. a table or a view is created, modified, or delete using the CREATE,ALTER, or DROP statements.

Q.45) The OUTPUT keyword specifies that the variables are involved in passing values from the called procedure to the callling program.

A. True (correct answer)
B. False

Q.46) The UPDATE triggers are created either at the column level or at the table.

A. True (correct answer)
B. false

Q.47) Which are true for DELETE Trigger?
– 2 choices.

A. The record is deleted from the trigger table and inserted in the inserted table
B. The record is deleted from the trigger table and inserted in the deleted table (missed)
C. the deleted record stored in the deleted table is copied back to the Trigger table. (missed)
D. the deleted record stored in the deleted table is lost when Trigger is executed.

Q.48) INSTEAD OF Triggers.
– 2 choices

A. is executed in place of the INSERT, UPDATE or DELETE operation. (missed)
B. can not be created on views, It is only on tables
C. A tables or a view can have any INSTEAD OF trigger defined for INSERT, UPDATE, and DELETE.
D. Are executed before constraint checks are performed on the table.and They executed after creating Inserted and Deleted tables, (missed)
Q.49) which statements are true?
– 2 choices

A. An AFTER trigger is executed on completion of DROP, ATLTER and CREATE.
B. AFTER triggers can be created on tables and columns
C. A table can have multiple AFTER trigger defined for each INSERT, UPDATE, and DELETE operation. (missed)
D. An AFTER trigger is executed before the constraint check in the table is completed
E. The Trigger is executed after the inserted and Deleted tables are created. (missed)

Q.50) which statement is true?

A. Update triggers do not use the Deleted table to update records in a table
B. Delete trigger do not use the Inserted table to delete records from atable (correct answer)

Q.51) Where are true?

A. Each triggering action can have multiple AFTER triggers (missed)
B. Two triggers action on a table can have the same first and last triggers
C. trigger definition can be viewed if the information is not encrypted (missed)
D. DML trigger definition can be modified by dropping and creating the trigger. (missed)

Q.52) Which statements are false?

A. DDL trigger for DROP operation can be created as an INSTEAD OF trigger. (missed)
B. a DDL trigger for ALTER event can be invoked only after the modification operations are completed
C. a DDL trigger definition can be display using as_helptext. (missed)
D. a DD L trigger can be removed from the current database using the DROP TRIGGER

Q.53) Indexes are used for faster retrieval of data.and improve the speed of query when accessing data a database.

A. True (correct answer)
B. false

Q.54) DDL Triggers are…

A. UPDATE trigger
B. DROP Trigger (missed)
C. INSERT Trigger
D. DELETE Trigger
E. CREATE and ALTER Trigger (missed)

Q.55) A table can have only one Clustered index and 249 nonclustered indexs.

A. True (correct answer)
B. False
Q.56) Reseves space on the intermediate level of an index.

A. FILLFACTOR
B. PAD_INDEX (correct answer)
C. Computed
D. Unique

Q.57) ……………index stores data in a sorted manner.

A. Nonclustered
B. Clustered (correct answer)
C. unique

Q.58) A ………..is created on 2 or more columns. Both clustered index and nonclustered index can be …………

A. Composite Index (correct answer)
B. Full-Text Index
C. Xml Index
D. Unique Index

Q.59) A …………..can be defined on a column with no duplicate values.

A. Full-Text Index.
B. Unique Index (correct answer)
C. XML Index

Q.60) Too many Indexes descrease the performance of …………
– 3 choices

A. CREATE
B. INSERT (missed)
C. DROP
D. UPDATE (missed)
E. DELETE (missed)

Q.61) Noncluster indexes do not physiscally rearrange the data in the database. and cluster index causes records to be physically sorted or sequential order.

A. True (correct answer)
B. False

Q.62) What option to reserve space on the leaf page of an index for adding additional data at a later stage?

A. FILLFACTOR (correct answer)
B. PAD_INDEX

Q.63) An Index can have a max of ….columns

A. 26
B. 32
C. 24
D. 16 (correct answer)
E. no limit

Q.64) FILLFACTOR value ranges from 0-100?

A. True (correct answer)
B. False

Q.65) Way to view index?

A. SP_helptext ‘index_name’
B. sp_textindex ‘table_name’
C. sys.sql_modules index_name’
D. sp_helpindex ‘index_name’
E. sp_helpindex ‘table_name’ (correct answer)

Q.66) A View is defined with an unique clustered index, is useful for queries that aggregate many rows, but is not suitable for tables that are frequently updated.

A. Standdard View
B. Indexed View (correct answer)
C. Partitioned View

Q.67) The properties of an Object such as a table or a view, are stored in special system data. These properties are……………………

A. System Views
B. Metadata (correct answer)
C. Index
D. constraints
E. inserted,deleted

Q.68) A View is created using horizontally partittioned data from one or more tables.

A. indexed View
B. Partitioned View (correct answer)
C. Standard view
Q.69) A View is created using column from one or more table and providing specific access to data for viewing and manipulation.

A. Indexed View
B. Staddard View (correct answer)
C. Partitioned View

Q.70) A View is created in everywhere databases.

A. True
B. False (correct answer)

Q.71) A View can be created on temporary table.

A. True
B. False (correct answer)
Q.72) Clustered index, nonlustered index can be created on the view.

A. True (correct answer)
B. False

Q.73) A View definition can not contain keywords:

A. Insert
B. Compute by (missed)
C. Group By (missed)
D. Delete
E. Into (missed)

Q.74) A View definition can not contain keywords:

A. Update
B. Compute (missed)
C. drop
D. Default (missed)
E. Top……….Group by
Q.75) A View may be have a FullText index.

A. True
B. False (correct answer)
Q.76) View can reference more than 1024 columns.

A. True
B. False (correct answer)

Q.77) The create view statement can be combined with other T-SQL statements in a single batch.

A. True
B. False (correct answer)

Q.78) DML Triggers are:
– 3 choices:

A. Used to enforce business rule when data is modified in table or view (missed)
B. defined either at the Database or in the server level
C. defined at the database (missed)
D. executed after the table or view is modified
E. executed either while or after the table or view (data) is modified (missed)

Q.79) A View can not reference a temporary table.

A. True (correct answer)
B. False

Q.80) View can retrieve information from xml data type using ……….. method.

A. Object_id()
B. value() (correct answer)
C. Return()

Q.81) Prevents invalid data from being entered into the column.
– 1 choice.

A. Validity
B. Data integrity
C. Business Rules (correct answer)
D. Constraint

Q.82) Refers to validity and consistency of data
– 1choice.

A. Data integrity (correct answer)
B. Constraint
C. Business Rules
D. Validity

Q.83) Ensure that data lies within a specified type or range constraints
-1 choice

A. Validity (correct answer)
B. Business Rules
C. Constraint
D. Data integrity

Q.84) A column with this constraint does not allow duplicate values, but allows null values to be inserted.
– 1 choice

A. primary key
B. check
C. foreign key
D. unique (correct answer)

Q.85) Which statements are True?
– 3 choices

A. Constraints assist in ensuring data integrity (missed)
B. Triggers are values that you can define on a column or a group of column
C. Rules are the constraints that you can apply to multiple tables (missed)
D. Rules are independent of table definitions. (missed)
E. Default are the codes automatically executed when a a specified event occurs.

Q.86) Entity Integrity are:
-3 choices

A. Foreign key constraint
B. Primary key constraint (missed)
C. Unique constraint (missed)
D. index, Identity property (missed)
E. Check, Default constraint

Q.87) Refers to policies and standards adhered to by an organization in running its operations.

A. Data integrity
B. Constraint
C. Business Rules (correct answer)
D. Validity

Q.88) Ensure that the values in a column are within a specified range
-1 choice.

A. Referential Integrity
B. Domain Integrity (correct answer)
C. User-defined
D. Entity integrity

Q.89) A column with this constraint does not allow null values or duplicate value to be inserted.
– 1 choice.

A. Unique
B. foreign key
C. primary key (correct answer)

Q.90) Refers to constraints defined by user.
– 1 choice.

A. Referential Integrity
B. Entity Integrity
C. Domain Integrity
D. User-define Integrity (correct answer)

Q.91) Domain integrity include:
– 3 choices

A. Primary key constraint, Default constraint
B. Foreign key constraint, Default constraint (missed)
C. Unique constraint
D. Check constraint (missed)
E. Not null definition, rules , Data types (missed)

Q.92) Maintaining consistency of data across tables that related through common columns.
– 1 choice.

A. Entity Integrity
B. Domain Integrity
C. Referential Integrity (correct answer)

Q.93) In a table , when no two rows have the exact same values in all columns.
– 1 choice.

A. Domain Integrity
B. Entity Integrity (correct answer)
C. Referential Integrity
D. user-defined

Q.94) Which statements are true?
– 3 choices.

A. A row in a table represents the instance of an entity (missed)
B. Referential integrity is implemented using UNIQUE constraint
C. A domain defines the range of values for columns in a table (missed)
D. User-defined integrity is maintained using default constraints
E. Default definitions specify default values for columns that do not accept null values. (missed)

Q.95) Maintains relationship between tables in a database, and Ensure consistency of data across related tables.
– 1 choice

A. User-define
B. Entity integrity
C. Referential Integrity (correct answer)
D. Domain Integrity

Q.96) Which statements are true?
– 2 choices

A. The PRIMARY KEY constraint allows a null value to be entered once in a column.
B. Constraints are used to ensure validity of data in a table and consistency of data across tables (missed)
C. A column specified with a UNIQUE constraint should have reference to the Primary Key column.
D. The Foreign key constraint helps in maintaining referential integrity in the database (missed)
Q.97) Ensures that each record in a table is unique.
– 1 choice.

A. User-define Integrity
B. Referential Integrity
C. Entity Integrity (correct answer)
D. Domain Integrity

Tác giả:

Thích thì chiều sao phải xoắn :))

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